Dear Sir Today on Indian TV Channels two news are being shown which are very confusing. In one news, it is shown that Lakhvi (mastermind of 26/11) was released on bail by Pakistani Court (in 26/11 case) saying that there are not sufficient evidences against Lakhvi hence as per Pak court it does not justify further judicial custody of Lakhvi. But India objects to it because India says that it has given enough evidences to Pakistan about complicity of Lakhvi in 26/11. These Indian evidences are allegedly based mainly on telephone (mobile) conversation between terrorist in Mumbai (who were carrying out 26/11) and Lakhvi who was allegedly giving instructions and monitoring 26/11. In second news it is shown that Subordinate (CBI) Court in India has given clean chit to Amit shah (Presently BJP President and then Home Minister of Gujarat) because telephone calls between Amit Shah and police officers (who carried out fake encounter of Sohrabuddin) were not considered sufficient evidence by this Indian Court. Is there any difference between two types of phone conversations? Were conversations between Lakhvi and perpetrators of 26/11 at Mumbai containing talks about actual operation of 26/11? Were conversations between Amit Shah and Police officers are merely call records between them but does not contain any talk / hint about said fake encounter? Can someone please enlighten! Regards Hem Raj Jain (Author of 'Betrayal of Americanism') Bengaluru, (Karnataka) India